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  • Anglo-Israelism
  • British-Israelism
  • Pre-millennialism

As popularized by many including Herbert W. Armstrong of the World Wide Church of God WCG Utterly refuted!

  • Does History Support The Claim That The Anglo-Saxon Races Are The Ten Tribes Of Israel?
  • Does The Bible Teach That They Are God's Modern Covenant People?

God's Prophetic Word, P386-450, Chapter XI by Foy E Wallace Jr. 1945AD

This is a partial extract from WWW.BIBLE.CA and they deserve full credit. They do great work, so visit and support their ministry.

Now what is Anglo-Israelism? It is the doctrine that the Jews are not Israel. That is all a mistake, we are told. Jews are one thing and Israel quite another. It is a doctrine that originated in England, largely surrounding the British people. The doctrine asserts that the Anglo-Saxon peoples are the ten tribes the true Israel. And it is Israel, not the Jews, who will be restored in the millennium. This restored Israel, the Anglo Saxon people, with Jesus Christ seated on the reestablished earthly throne of David as king, will rule the whole world. Anglo-Israelism teaches that the literal throne of David exists today in the throne of the English kings, and when Jesus Christ returns he will simply occupy the throne which the British kings now hold, and have been holding for centuries, for him until he comes, until the millennium commences....A ranking authority on Anglo-Israelism is Professor E. Odlum, M.A., B.Sc., F.R.C., Inst., etc. He is author of an unusual book in defense of the Anglo-Israel theory. The book bears the title, "God's Covenant Man: British Israel." They reveal the racial and political propaganda of this sect. If the nation of England held to this doctrine, if king George believed it, if her representatives in Parliament subscribed to it, and if British people in large percent embraced it, then Great Britain would thereby assume the same character as Nazi Germany before a civilized world, and would not only deserve to be subdued but for the sake of world security and freedom would, of necessity, have to be overthrown and divested of power as completely as Nazi Germany, or any other aggressor nation holding to the delusive doctrine of "the master race."

Let it here be definitely stated that neither the British government nor the British people, not even the Church of England, make any claim that Great Britain is Israel. No more so than the United States government lends endorsement or encouragement to the Mormon claim that the original Americans are the ten tribes of Israel. Like Mormonism, therefore, Anglo-Israelism is just another "ism" that needs to be exposed. It is a false theory of late origin, the fallacies of which are manifest when compared with the facts of history and scripture. It is similar in origin to all other late isms and rests on much the same claims.

About a hundred years ago imposter Joseph Smith made the false claim of having special divine revelations, published a bogus book and Mormonism was born. A few years later Ellen White fell victim to some delusions which she called visions. Her followers thought her revelations were divine, named her their inspired prophetess, published her visions, and Seventh Day Adventism was born. Near the same time ecstatic Mary Baker Eddy found it profitable to dream dreams and to see visions, so she brought forth her system of so called science in the form of a creed called "Science and Health with a Key to the Scriptures," and "Christian Science," falsely so called, was born.

In this same era of "visions" and "revelations," Richard Brothers, in England, just another misguided soul, made himself believe that he was the subject of special revelations, too; and he conjured up the notion that the Anglo-Saxon peoples, not the hated Jews, are the real Israelites and Anglo-Israelism is here. Being a Britisher himself, and fond of the Anglo Saxon idea anyway, it was not hard for Brothers to believe that they are Israel in other words, we are it. Thus Anglo-Israelism was born. That is precisely the way it came into existence, and like Mormonism, Adventism, Eddyism and all other humanisms, it has nothing in history, scripture, or common ordinary sense upon which to stand.

II. THE HISTORICAL ARGUMENT.

Let us break this proposition down.

(1) The Bible and history.

A full discussion of Anglo-Israelism will require a detailed examination of their historical, ethnological, philological and Biblical arguments, followed by an exposure of the political character of this British system of teaching.

If you have read the literature of these speculators you cannot have failed to observe an oft repeated phrase—"the Bible and history." The Bible and history teach it, they say. If the Bible teaches it that settles the history of it. The Bible does not conflict with history nor history contradict the Bible. Their overuse of this phrase reveals that they are afraid of their ground. If the Bible proof is positive, why do they not take the Bible and prove their proposition? They are conscious of their inability to do so, hence the need of keeping their followers confused and bewildered by reams of papers on centuries and millenniums of history.

The Bible Teaches:

But no sooner do they use that expression than they cant about "scriptural intimations," and "strong historical proof." These two expressions occur repeatedly in their writings and addresses—"scriptural intimations" and "strong historical proof." How much must the Bible "intimate" a thing to teach it? And how "strong" must the "proof" of a thing be to prove it? The Roman Catholic church claims that the "Bible and history" teach that Peter was the first pope—the Bible "intimates" it, they think, and history contains "strong proof" of it, according to them.

But the Anglo-Israel "scriptural intimation" consists in interpretations of prophecy that are purely arbitrary. For instance, they apply certain prophecies to the cities of the :Axis Powers today that definitely referred to Babylon, Nineveh, Tyre, and other cities of antiquity. They cannot cite one single passage and say, here it is, read it; this is my proof. Scriptural "intimations" indeed! Their theory bogs down in the meshes of history, ethnology and philology in the utter absence of Bible proof.

They know, we all know, that the origin of races is a speculative field. There is no certain way to determine definitely some questions that pertain wholly to ethnology. Their own meandering is one of the best proofs of that fact. But Anglo-Israel teachers rely on that very fact, the uncertainties and difficulties of the ethnological and philological realms, to impress their curious minded members with their claim to hold the key to an understanding of a very "deep" and "intricate" discovery. Their use of history is but a smattering of historical references; their use of the prophecies is but a smearing of the prophetic word; and their Bible "intimations" are but a garbling of biblical texts. A mere intimation, with no actual proof, is all that the theory promises at its best, even in the eyes of those who espouse it, and the most that can be claimed for it by those who teach it is that it is a doubt, and to one who actually knows the "Bible and history" it is a delusion.

History and the Bible:

It is very interesting to observe how the Anglo-Israelist connects the two. For instance, one of their chief texts for a "scriptural intimation" and "strong historical proof" is Gen. 48:1820: "And Joseph said unto his father, not so, my father: for this is the firstborn; put thy right hand upon his head. And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it: he also shall become a people, and he also shall be great: but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become a multitude of nations. And he blessed them that day, saying, In thee shall Israel bless, saying, God make thee as Ephraim and as Manasseh: and he set Ephraim before Manasseh."

And here is the "intimation"—Ephraim should be called "great" and Great Britain is called Great, therefore Great Britain is Ephraim! On the other hand Manasseh must have a place in the picture, so the United States is Manasseh. That is the very hub of their British-Anglo-Saxon-Israel claim—that Great Britain is Ephraim and the United States is Manasseh. But the whole argument is based upon misquotation. The passage does not say that "Ephraim shall be called great"—it says that

"his younger brother shall be greater than he"—that is, Ephraim should be "greater" than Manasseh," which could only mean, according to this theory that England is greater than the United States! Does lend-lease furnish "strong historical proof" on this point? How do Americans like that slant? Really, what might have happened to great Ephraim if little Manasseh had not come to the rescue? He would have been sunk! The theory furnishes very good British propaganda but, without reflecting on the imperial greatness of Britain or the national pride of America, if the glory of either is the hope of Israel it is a mighty poor affair.

A Great Nation:

Another "intimation" which is substituted for an argument is found in the expression "a great nation" or a "multitude" of nations, which Israel should become. But that is surely farfetched, especially since the same thing is said of Ishmael in Gen. 17:20 and Gen. 21:18. Since Ishmael should also become "a great nation" and a "multitude" also, it could be that Englishmen are Ishmaelites instead of Israelites!

It is asserted that Isaiah was prophesying of Great Britain in Isa. 60:12: "For the nation and kingdom that shall not serve thee shall perish, yea, those nations shall be utterly wasted." An Anglo-Israel authority, Odlum, page 180, says: "There is no escape. All must serve Israel. All are serving Britain. Britain is Israel." All that I have to say to that statement is that if what the British-Israel authority asserted represents the British government and the people of the British isles, England would be as bad as Nazi Germany and would deserve destruction. Fortunately Britain and her dominions espouse no such doctrine.

(2) The Anglo-Saxon descendants.

The British-Israelists assert that "multitude" of people means a "company of nations," and Great Britain is a "company" of nations—therefore Great Britain is Ephraim. But why pick on Britain ? Babylonia, Persia, Grecia and Rome were all a company of nations. Cyrus the Great said that God had given to him all the kingdoms of the earth—2 Chron. 36: 23. Allowing that interpretation any company of nations could be selected to be Ephraim and thereby become Israel.

The Seed of Ephraim:

But if the expression "his seed" should become "a multitude" of peoples or nations, means Britain, it would of necessity embrace her dominions, for Britain alone is not a "company" of nations. Here the Anglo-Israelist objects—for his theory calls for Anglo-Saxons only. And it is a known fact that Britain's "company" of nations are not Saxons. And those who are England's Saxons are a mixture of Celts, Normans, Picts, Gauls, and even the German Teutons. They all once occupied the whole of Great Britain and amalgamated with the Scots with Germans at the head of it. What a mongrel Israel!

The actual truth of that matter is that there is more Teutonic blood in king George of England than there is Saxon blood. The house of Este, one of the oldest houses in Italy, married into the houses of Brunswick and Hanover, from which descended the English kings and their line of sovereigns. The house of Hanover is German. It was during the World War I that England changed the house of Hanover into the house of Brunswick, but it remains a fact nevertheless that their line of sovereigns is mixed with Italian and German to a predominating extent. It follows as an irresistible conclusion that the throne of England is in the family of king George and not in the ten tribes of Israel.

If the British-Israel argument on the "company" of nations is correct, we have British Israel with black and yellow Ephraim; for if they deny that Britain's dominions are the ten tribes also, they have no point on Great Britain's "company of nations" as the "multitude" from Ephraim's seed.

The Proposition:

The proposition affirmed by Dr. John Matthews in the Los Angeles debate was worded as follows: "The Bible and history teach that the Anglo-Saxon peoples have descended in large part from the ten tribes of Israel and are therefore God's modern covenant people." It will be noted that the gentleman does not know who the Anglo-Saxons really are, for he says they "in large part descended" from the ten tribes. He dare not say that they are the ten tribes! How "large part" did they descend? If they are not one hundred per cent Israel, then what percent?

The very phraseology "in large part descended" becomes an admission of a fatal fact—namely, that they do not have a pure Israel, do not know exactly or in what percent Israel exists in the Anglo-Saxons, not knowing precisely who the Anglo-Saxons are, and therefore the theory offers to the whole world a mongrel Israel composed and consisting of Celts, Normans, Picts, Scandinavians, Danes, Norwegians, Scots, Russians and Germans. Furthermore, since there is a decided similarity of sound in the names Japheth and Japan, Manasseh and Manchuria, the African tribe of Mossi and Moses, it could be possible, according to the way an Anglo-Israelist argues, that the Japs descended from Japheth, the Manchurians from Manasseh, and the tribe of Mossi from Moses, so British Israel may be all mixed up with black Ephraim, and yellow Manasseh, all melted into a mongrel Israel, indeed!

If it should be countered that only the Anglo-Saxons are Israel—then a question arises: Are the Anglo-Saxons "a company of nations" belonging to Great Britain? If not, in order for the theory to be true Great Britain must some future time rule over all the Anglo-Saxon world. And that is precisely what this system proposes as shown from the quotation from Odlum, page 180: "There is no escape. All must serve Israel. All are serving Britain. Britain is Israel." There is no doubt about it—this overall theory of Anglo-Israelism provides that Great Britain shall rule over all Anglo-Saxons. No wonder it has been under the surveillance of the FBI and is listed in UNDER COVER as a politically seditious movement.

According to British Israelism the only difference between Israelism and Naziism is the question, who is the master race? The Lyric of Walt Disney, of California, might be recommended at this point as a fitting chorus: "When der Fuehrer say 'Ve iss der master race,' we say 'phewewew' right in der Fuehrer's face!"

This talk of the Anglo-Saxons being descendants of the ten tribes "in large part" reminds one of the theory of the origin of species. By the evolution theory they try to make a monkey out of a man, and by this British theory they are trying to make an Israelite out of an Englishman! But look at his line of descent. Even his Davidic throne has Hamitic links. Wilhelm of Germany is alleged to be Hamite, while George V. of England, his cousin, is alleged to be an Israelite. King George is known to have more Teutonic than Anglo-Saxon blood. His throne inheres in a family, not in a tribe.

Like the theory of evolution, Anglo-Israelism is at best a guess, born in doubt and exists in doubt. In one hundred years of its existence it still has nothing but doubt to offer. It consists of biological impossibilities, with centuries of mixed marriages, and brings forth a mongrel Israel. Their argument is not complimentary to the Anglo-Saxon people.

(3) The ten tribes.

It is insisted that the ten tribes are the real Israel, not the Jews of the tribes of Judah and Benjamin—but the ten tribes and the Anglo-Saxons (us) are descendants of the ten tribes, therefore we are Israel. Now, using your thinker, ask yourself the question: When and how did the ten tribes originate? Read 1 Kings 12 and 13. They originated in the rending of the kingdom and went off in apostasy. God's throne and kingdom remained in Judah. God repudiated the kingdom of the ten tribes and sent a prophet out of Judah to denounce their altars. How does it happen now that the apostate ten tribes have the advantage over Judah? Just how and when did the ten tribes fall heir to the throne from Judah?

Now let these Anglo-Israelists quit careering all over creation and get down to the task of answering these questions— not mere "scriptural intimations," but direct scriptural answers —and they will be getting somewhere, at least we will. In order for the Anglo-Israelists to prove their theory there are a few things they must of necessity prove:

First: They must prove that the ten tribes were once lost. If so, how do they know it?

Second: They must prove that they have found these lost tribes. If so, how can they identify them?

Third: They must prove that the British and American people are these lost ten tribes. If so, how shall they prove it? It will not be enough to say they "descended in large part"— that will not fill the order—they must identify them.

Fourth: They must prove that Great Britain is Ephraim and the United States is Manasseh. And having done that they will have only proved that England is greater than the U. S. A., which should throw lend-lease in reverse, start it working the other way, and let our armies come home.

Fifth: They must prove that the ten tribes alone constitute the house of Israel, in which there are no Jews.

In the magazine DESTINY, page 347, this statement is made: "Jews are only a small part of Israelites. They are not the house of Israel, for in that house there are no Jews." Now compare that statement with the facts set forth in a few passages of scripture.

1. The house of Israel was in Babylon with Ezekiel—Ezek. 3 :1-15.

In verse 1 God told Ezekiel to "go speak unto the house of Israel." In verse 5 God said that he should speak "to the house of Israel" only. In verse 11 he was told to speak "to them of the captivity, unto the children of thy people." In verse 15 it identifies them as those who were in Babylon with Ezekiel "that dwelt by the river Chebar"—in Babylon. But everybody knows that the Jews were in the captivity of Babylon, not the ten tribes. So the Jews in Babylon, according to Ezekiel, were the "house of Israel." Ezekiel was commanded to speak to them, but he was told to speak only to the house of Israel, those in Babylon, dwelling by the river Chebar. So it seems that there were quite a number of Jews in the house of Israel, after all, and DESTINY must be wrong about it. Moreover, Ezekiel 37 pictures the "whole house of Israel" in return from the Babylonian captivity. The statement that "in that house there are no Jews" is absurd and displays an ignorance that is appalling on the part of editors and writers of such a magazine as DESTINY.

2. The house of Israel returned from Babylon with Ezra, Zerrubbabel and Nehemiah—Ezek. 47:13. "Thus saith the Lord God: This shall be the border, whereby ye shall inherit the land according to the twelve tribes of Israel: Joseph shall have two portions."

Here Ezekiel tells them the portion of all the twelve tribes when they return. Jeremiah said that the house of Israel would return from the north country to dwell again in their land. Jer. 23:8: "But the Lord liveth, which brought up and which led the seed of the house of Israel out of the north country, and from all countries whither I had driven them; and they shall dwell in their own land." Cyrus the Great, king of Persia, made a proclamation in Babylon to all the Jews "throughout all his kingdom" for any who were "of all his people" (God's people) to return. Ezra 1:1-3: "Who is there among you of all his people? his God be with him, and let him go up to Jerusalem, which is in Judah, and build the house of the Lord God of Israel; (he is the God) which is in Jerusalem." This proclamation was addressed to Israel. God had "stirred up the spirit of Cyrus" to make this proclamation. It fulfilled all that Jeremiah had spoken concerning the return of Israel to their land, a blanket fulfillment. If the ten tribes were not included in this proclamation, they were not of "all his people"—not God's people. They all had the opportunity to return, all Israel in Babylon, and those in the "north country"—the ten tribes —and this proves definitely that the distinction which the Anglo-Israelists attempt to make is a false distinction.

After the return to Jerusalem Ezra commanded a sin offering for every tribe of Israel, and he referred to them as "all Israel." Ezra 6 :16-17: "And the children of Israel, the priests, and the Levites, and the rest of the children of the captivity, kept the dedication of this house with joy, and offered at the dedication of this house of God an hundred bullocks, two hundred rams, four hundred lambs; and for a sin offering for all Israel, twelve he goats, according to the number of the tribes of Israel." Why offer for "all Israel" if it was only the Jews who returned from Babylon, and not Israel at all, as Anglo-Israelites assert?

In his printed Radio Addresses, the one of May 22, 1943, the Dr. John Matthews said that "it has been admitted that Ezra and Nehemiah are Jewish books." In the same address he said that "it has also been admitted that in two or three instances Jews and Israel are the same." But DESTINY says that there are "no Jews" in the house of Israel. The Doctor and the Editor had better confer.

Since it is "admitted" that "in two or three instances" Jews and Israel were the same, we now claim the right to demand that they name these two or three instances. And if they are the same in two or three instances, they might explain how many instances Jews and Israel must be the same in order to remain the same. If they are the same a part of the time, and a part of the time they are not the same, then how may we tell when they are the same and when they are not the same? Just how many "instances" does the Bible have to say a thing to prove it to be that way?

Take another look at Ezra. Read Chap. 3:11: "And they sang together by course in praising and giving thanks unto the Lord; because he is good, for his mercy endureth for ever toward Israel. And all the people shouted with a great shout, when they praised the Lord, because the foundation of the house of the Lord was laid." If the Jews and Israel are not the same, why should these Jews who had returned from Babylon, who were not "in the house of Israel" per Anglo-Israelists —why should they be shouting for Israel, if they were not Israel ?

In the book of Ezra they are called Jews eight times and Israel forty times. In Nehemiah they are called Jews eleven times and Israel twenty two times. If these terms are not used interchangeably by Ezra and Nehemiah, how could they have used them interchangeably if they had wanted to do so? If these terms are not used interchangeably, then we have more Israel than Jews in Ezra, and the argument is reversed, for Anglo-Israelists insist, that only the Jews, not Israel, returned to Judah from Babylon. But if the terms "Jews" and "Israel" are used interchangeably, then they are identical, the same in more than "two or three instances," and their whole argument is lost. In the two lists found in Ezra 2 and Nehemiah 7, the number of Israel was 12,000 and the number of Judah was 30,000—and the sin offering was made for "all Israel," for "every tribe of Israel." Why? These facts are fatal to the Anglo-Israel theory.

It is pertinent here to inquire, who returned to Palestine. The Anglo-Israelists deny that Israel returned. Only the Jews returned. Israel remained scattered and lost, to be found centuries later in the British Isles. Let us see. In 1 Chron. 9 13 we read: "So all Israel were reckoned by genealogies; and behold, they were written in the book of the kings of Israel and Judah, who were carried away to Babylon for their transgress on . . . And In Jerusalem dwelt of the children of Judah, and of the children of Benjamin, and of the children of Ephraim and Manasseh." Let it be noted that this was after the return, and who is in Jerusalem? First, "all Israel," and they were "reckoned by genealogies," so it must have been true. Second, among them were "children of Judah" and "children of Benjamin," who were Jews, according to Anglo-Israelists. But note: "And of the children of Ephraim and Manasseh." Here are the very ones who the Anglo-Israelists say were "Israel"—and they were there. But they tell us only the Jews were there—not Israel at all. They are dead wrong.

In 713 B.C., during the reign of Hezekiah, Sennacherib, king of Assyria, invaded Judah, took all the fenced cities—2 Kings 18:3—and carried the captives to Assyria. But that is where the ten tribes were—in Assyria. So in this way both Judah and Israel were in Assyria. Later, the proclamation of Cyrus— Ezra 1:13—gave "all the opportunity to return, and all who wanted to return but were not able were given government aid.

Anyone can see what these facts do to the Anglo-Israel theory. That theory contends that Israel was "in the north country" and did not return to Palestine, that the ten tribes subsequently became lost, and never did return, but were traced to the British Isles, and now exist in the British, Anglo-Saxon, Celtic races. The passages cited show that their contention is wrong. These scriptural facts are absolutely fatal to the Anglo-Israel doctrine.

3. The house of Israel was in Judah during the personal ministry of Christ.—Matt. 10:56.

"These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not. But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel

Here Jesus commanded the twelve to "go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." If "lost" in this passage means that the tribes were physically lost, how could the twelve disciple "go" to them? And if the Jews were "not in the house of Israel," since it is claimed that the ten tribes were not in Judea, but were lost, to whom did the disciples "go," and to whom did they preach? They were specifically told not to go to the Gentiles, and not to go to the Samaritans, so if they did not go to the Jews, to whom were they sent? But if they did go to the Jews, since those to whom they went were the "lost sheep of the house of Israel," it certainly follows that the Jews were "in that house" in fact, the Jews were that house.

Again, if "the lost sheep of the house of Israel" were the ten tribes only, as asserted, then the disciples did not belong to the "house of Israel" themselves, and were therefore forbidden to preach to their own tribe! Of course, "lost sheep" does not mean literal sheep, hence they were not literally lost. The expression "lost sheep of the house of Israel" denotes their spiritual condition.

In Luke 2:36 we are told that Anna was of the tribe of Assher, and she was not lost, and Luke knew the tribe to which she belonged, and I reckon Anna knew it, too. It must be plain to all who regard these facts of scripture that the people of Judah were the lost sheep of the house of Israel, to whom the twelve and the seventy were sent. The house of Israel refers definitely to the Jews in Judea and Galilee. If this is not true, it becomes the task of those who deny it to tell us where they were when the Lord sent his disciples to preach to them.

Ezekiel was sent only to the house of Israel in Babylon, dwelling by the river Chebar. The disciples of Jesus were sent only to the house of Israel, dwelling in Judea and Galilee in the time of Christ. Yet these so called experts on history and ethnology tell us that these tribes were not there, and that no Jews were in the house of Israel: But the house of Israel was in Babylon with Ezekiel. Every tribe of Israel, referred to as "all Israel," is found in Ezra. They are mentioned in the New Testament specifically, and Anna the prophetess was personally said to be one of them. The disciples were sent out by the Lord to preach to them—yet these British-Israel historians, ethnologists, philologists and archtheorists tell us that none were there.

Their theory is not historical; it is not ethnological; it is not philological; and it is not biblical. And the expression "all Israel" stands in protest against Anglo-Israelism.

4. The house of Israel was in Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost—Acts 2:122.

The ten tribes were in Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost There were "Jews from every nation under heaven" and among them were those who were called "Parthians and Medes." Who were these "Medes" in Jerusalem on Pentecost? Turn to 2 Kings 17:6: "In the ninth year of Hoshea, the king of Assyria took Samaria, and carried Israel away into Assyria, and placed them in Halah and in Habor by the river of Gozan, and in the cities of the Medes." Now read 2 Kings 18:11: "And the king of Assyria did carry away Israel unto Assyria, and put them in Halah and in Habor by the river of Gozan, and in the cities of the Medes." These two passages very plainly show that the ten tribes were carried away into Media and "placed in the "cities of the Medes." But on the day of Pentecost there were "Jews" from "Media," referred to as "Medes." So the ten tribes were present in Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost—the very thing that Anglo-Israelism denies.

Checking the numerous verses of Acts 2 bearing on this point, we have the following:

In verse 5 reference is made to "Jews from every nation under heaven." In verse 9 some of them are called "Medes"— "Parthians and Medes." In verse 14 Peter addresses them as "men of Judea." In verse 22 he calls them "Men of Israel."

In verse 36 he labels them as "all the house of Israel." Then in Acts 10:36, the same apostle, speaking to the house of Cornelius, calls them the "children of Israel" to whom the gospel was sent and which was "published throughout all Judea."

There is no foundation for British-Israelism in Acts 2 or in Acts 10, where the gospel began to be preached to the Jews and where it began to be preached to the Gentiles. The Anglo-Israelists are making a distinction without a difference. They are attempting to draw a distinction that the New Testament does not make. Their theory is the figment of their own imagination, conceived in national pride, born of fleshly hope, and promoted as political propaganda under the guise of a religious doctrine.

Sixth: They must prove that "Jews" and "Israel" are never synonymous. Let us look into the uses of these terms in both the Old Testament and New Testament and thus determine if the Anglo-Israel claim of a difference is in fact a true distinction.

In the Old Testament: The terms "Hebrew," "Jew" and "Israel" were used interchangeably in the law governing slavery. In Ex. 21:2 it is said, "If thou buy a Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing." In reference to this same law on slavery in Lev. 25:46 the "Hebrew servant" is mentioned as "your brethren, the children of Israel" over whom they should "not rule" continuously "with rigour." Then in Jer. 34:9 the same law of slavery is restated, that every man should let his "Hebrew" servant "go free," and this phrase is added: "To wit, of a Jew his brother." Here we have three statements of the same law. Moses stated it twice and used the terms "Hebrew" and "Israel" interchangeably. Jeremiah quoted the same law and used the terms "Hebrew" and "Jew" interchangeably, showing that he recognized no difference. Moses and Jeremiah understood Heblew, Jew and Israel to mean the same thing and used the three words synonymously. The reference to the covenant that God made with Israel when he brought them out of Egypt shows that Jeremiah was referring to the same law of slavery. "Thus saith the Lord, the God of Israel; I made a covenant with your fathers in the day that I brought them forth out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondmen, saying, at the end of seven years let ye go every man his brother an Hebrew, which hath been sold unto thee. "Jer. 34:1314. Jeremiah did not know about this late distinction the Anglo-Israelists are making between Jews and Israelites—he thought a Hebrew, a Jew and an Israelite were all the same thing. The Old Testament does not bear out the distinction.

In the New Testament: Most every Bible reader knows something about "Cruder's Concordance" and most Bible students have a copy of it. The author of that concordance, Alexander Cruden, says: "The Jews are always spoken of in the New Testament as the twelve tribes, never as two, and Ezra 6:17 certainly indicates that they were thus considered at the time of the Return." This verdict of scholarship is found in Cruden's Concordance under the heading of "Tribes." But Anglo-Israelites have the audacity to assert that no apostle— not one was a Jew. The apostles were Israelites, they say, not Jews.

What does the New Testament itself say about it? Who are Israelites in the New Testament use of the word? Does the New Testament make a difference between a "fleshly Jew" and a fleshly "Israelite"? In answer to these questions, the following parallels are submitted:

1. John preached repentance to the Jews "of Judea"—Mark 1:4-5.

But John preached "repentance to all people of Israel" Acts 13:24.

2. Nicodemus was "a ruler of the Jews"—John 3:1.

But Nicodemus was "a master of Israel" John 3:10.

3. Paul the apostle was "a Jew of Tarsus"—Acts 21 :39.

But Paul the apostle was also "an Israelite"—Rom. 11:1.

4. Paul called the Jews his own nation—Gal. 1:13-14.

But Paul called Israel his nation—Acts 28:17-20.

5. Paul was a fleshly Jew "by nature"—Gal. 2:15.

But Paul was the same kind of an Israelite—2 Cor. 11:22.

In Radio Address, Aug. 28, 1943, Dr. John Matthews said that Paul was a Jew only in a religious sense. Well, he was a Benjamite—Ph. 3 :15—and the tribe of Benjamin remained with Judah, not the ten tribes, hence not Israel, according to these modern "Israelites." Moreover, Paul's use of the word "Jew" in Acts 21:39, when he declared himself a Jew, was in contrast with the word "Egyptian" in verse 38, in the same connection. He was the same kind of a Jew that the other fellow was of "an Egyptian." Paul says that he was a fleshly Jew, a Jew by nature, a Hebrew and a Benjamite, yet we are told that he was a Jew only in a religious sense, a religious Jew by nature, or just naturally a religious Jew! A natural religious Jew, or a religious natural Jew—which? Such twaddle makes us feel like saying "Pshaw!"

6. Paul called Peter a Jew like "other Jews" Gal. 2:11-15.

Peter called himself a Jew in contrast with "another nation"—Acts 10:28.

7. Jews "out of every nation" were dwelling at Jerusalem—Acts 2:5.

Peter referred to all of these Jews as "men of Israel"—Acts 2:22.

8. The old covenant was given to the Jews—Rom. 3:1.

But the old covenant was given to Israel—Rom. 9:4.

9. Paul called the Jews the circumcision—Rom. 3 :29-30.

He referred to Israel as the circumcision—Gal. 6:13-16.

10. The gospel was first preached to the Jews—Rom. 1:16.

The gospel was first preached to Israel—Acts 10:36.

11. At first the gospel was preached only to the Jews—Acts 11:

19 But at first the gospel was preached to Israel—Acts 10:36.

12. The Jews and Israel were identified as being the same in Acts 13.

Verse 6 refers to the "synagogue of the Jews" in which Paul preached. In verse 16 Paul called them "men of Israel" and in verse 17 "this people of Israel." In verse 24 he says that John "had first preached repentance to all the people of Israel," in verse 26 he called them the "stock of Abraham," and in verse 33 he referred to the Jews as "us their children"; then, showing that the Jews were the ones to whom he was speaking, verse 42 says "when the Jews came out of the synagogue." So Acts 13 adds up to this: Paul went into the "synagogue of the Jews"; talking to the Jews in their synagogue, he called them "men of Israel," "this people Israel," "all the people of Israel," "stock of Abraham," and "us their children"—and-then "the Jews came out of the synagogue"—but Anglo-Israelists say that the Jews were not Israel.

13. Matthew called Jesus the king of the Jews—Matt. 27:29-37.

Mark called Jesus the king of Israel—Mark 15:17, 32.

Let it be observed here that Pilate asked only one question. He did not ask if Christ was king of the Jews and then ask if he was king of Israel. The records of Matthew and Mark therefore show that they used the terms interchangeably; one said that he was king of the Jews, but the other said that he was king of Israel—but they meant the same thing. Therefore, Jews and Israel were understood by the gospel writers as being one and the same thing

14. Paul declares that Jesus was of the tribe of Judah—Heb.7:14

John declares that Jesus was Lion of the tribe of Judah Rev 5:5

If Paul had been of the tribe of Judah, would Anglo-Israelists admit that he was a Jew? Yes. Then, since Jesus Christ was of the tribe of Judah, what keeps him from being a Jew? Yet the Anglo-Israelists insist that neither Christ nor any of the apostles of Christ were Jews. Jesus was of the tribe of Judah; Paul was of the tribe of Benjamin, which merged with Judah and continued under the name of Judah. This fact is clearly stated in 1 Kings 12:2023. So Paul the Benjamite, and Jesus the Judahitc but neither of them was a Jew accor(lin~ to an Anglo-Israelite.

16. Finally—in his conversation with the Samaritan woman. Jesus said that he was a Jew Jn 4:9-22.

First, the woman of Samaria said to Jesus: "How is it that thou being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria ? for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans." Here Jesus permitted this woman to call him a Jew, and John the apostle wrote it down that way in the gospel record. Then m verse 22, Jesus said to the woman, "Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews." Thus Jesus accepted the name Jew when the woman called hind one, and then in referring to "ye" and "we" when replying to her he called himself one.

As the matter stands, Paul the Hebrew, the Benjamite, the Israelite, was a Jew. Jesus who "sprang out of Judah," and who was the "Lion of the tribe of Judah," was a Jew. Paul said "we Jews"—Gal. 2:15—and Jesus said "we Jews" Jno. 4 22—so Jesus and Paul were Jews if their own words count any thing or have any meaning. The baseless assertions of Anglo-Israelists to the contrary, notwithstanding.

Seventh: They must prove that God chose the ten tribes over Judah. In Psa. 78:6768 David says very specifically that God "refused the tabernacle of Joseph" and "chose not the tribe of Ephraim" but "chose the tribe of Judah." When did God change his mind and choose the tribe of Ephraim instead?

We hereby make the challenge for any man to produce the passage that proves God ever chose the Ten Tribes over Judah. We demand that passage.

To the contrary—the exact opposite of that—Isaiah the prophet declared that Ephraim should cease to be a people. Ephraim was forming an alliance against Judah. God said it would not stand, or come to pass, and that Ephraim would be broken, cease to be a separate people and become extinct as a nation. In fulfillment of that prophecy they went into captivity and never came out one people again. Do you ask where is such a prophecy found? I shall read it from Isa. 7:58: "Because Syria, Ephraim and the son of Remaliah hath taken evil counsel against thee (Judah), saying, let us go against Judah and vex it, and let us make a breach therein for us, and set a king in the midst of it . . . Thus saith the Lord God, it shall not stand, neither shall it come to pass . . . For the head of Syria is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is Rezin; and in three score and five years shall Ephraim be broken that it be not a people." This prophecy was spoken by Isaiah in 733 B.C., according to the dates agreed upon by such authorities as Wordsworth, Adam Clarke and Pulpit Commentary. The prophecy was fulfilled in 669 B.C., sixty-five years later, "three score and five years," when Ephraim was carried into captivity. The prophecy is linked with the prophecy that the invasion of Judah by Samaria would fail. That invasion did fail. But the prophet said that Ephraim would cease to be a people. Ephraim did cease to be a people. And it all occurred within the period named—B.C. 783 and B.C. 669—"three score and five years," or sixty-five years. Ephraim never came out of that captivity to exist as a people again.

Snip. Enough. Go To Start: WWW.BIBLE.CA

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